Weatherly’s First Negative
It is a
privilege to examine the teaching of my friend, Dr. Thomas Thrasher. Thomas
basically made THREE arguments in his affirmative: (1) “Where is NT Authority?”
(2) “Generic and Specific Terms,” and (3) “Singing is the only kind of music
authorized in NT worship.”
Thomas
introduced the argument of “generic and specific authority.” Thomas appealed to
both Noah and Naaman as examples of “specific authority.” I will agree that
Naaman was specifically told to dip “in Jordan,” however, I am not sure that
“gopher wood” is as specific as Thomas thinks. Commentators have struggled for
over a century concerning what species of wood “gopher wood” was. Terms like “oak,
cedar, pine, etc.” are generic terms. “White pine,” “yellow pine,” “Southern
pine” are the more specific terms. The “gopher wood” argument is weak indeed. The
same is true with the word “sing.” Thomas stated:
“Singing is specific with respect to the kind of music...”
However, it is interesting that Webster (Thomas’ source) DID NOT use the term “singing” in
defining the word “music!” Webster used the specific term “vocal” which means
“uttered by the voice!” “Singing” IS NOT
a specific term! Singing can be accompanied or unaccompanied and NOT violate the meaning of the term! No
one would think it strange if a person said, “I’m going to sing you a song” and
then all of the sudden they played the guitar while they sang. If the electric
sign in front of our church building read, “Singing Sunday 7pm” no one in their right mind would think, “Huh,
those Pentecostals must have gotten rid of their musical instruments.” “Sing”
is generic, not specific.
One definition of “sing” is “2. To
vocalize songs or selections” (American
Heritage/Yahoo), but another definition
is “4. To produce sounds when played:
made the violin sing.” By definition,
the word “sing” does not exclude the playing of musical instruments! What
excludes musical instruments from the word “singing” is the term “a cappella,”
which means “without instrumental accompaniment” (Webster). Thomas and his
brethren understand this because they qualify that their singing is “a cappella”
on their websites. If “singing” automatically excludes musical instruments,
then why must they qualify it with the term “a cappella”?
The problem
is Thomas reads the Bible with jaundiced eyes. So every time Thomas sees “sing”
he thinks it means “a cappella singing,” but “a cappella” isn’t found anywhere
in the Bible. Even in the Bible “sing” does not exclude musical instruments! In
1 Samuel 21:11, Achish said, “Is this not David, the king of the land? Did they
not SING of him in dances, saying,
Saul has killed his thousands and David his ten thousands.” Thomas would have
you believe that the word “sing” in this passage excluded the playing of
musical instruments. However, if you look at 1 Samuel 18:6-7, you will see that
the women came out “singing and dancing” with tabrets and instruments of music
and as they PLAYED they said “Saul
hath slain his thousands, and David his ten thousands.” So the word “SING” in 1 Sam. 21:11 didn’t exclude
musical instruments, in fact it included BOTH
the vocal utterance and the playing of musical instruments! In Exodus 15:20-21,
the women went out with timbrels, and Miriam said unto them, “SING ye to the LORD.” Just because
Miriam said, “Sing” and not “sing and play,” did not exclude those women from
playing their timbrels! In fact, “sing” INCLUDED
the idea of playing their timbrels, because “sing” is a generic term! Even in
the NT, “sing” does not exclude the playing of musical instruments. Three times
in Revelation (Rev. 5:8-9; 14:2-3; 15:2-3) we are told of those holding harps,
who “sing” a song before the throne. The fact that John used the term “sing” (ado) DID NOT exclude the playing of musical instruments. In fact, it
included it! Thomas went on to state:
“However, when God specified singing in NT worship, then playing
upon mechanical instruments was excluded as an addition to God’s word.”
I’ve already
shown that “singing” in both the OT and NT did not exclude the playing of
musical instruments, but let’s consider Thomas’ argument here. In other words,
Thomas is saying that a passage such as James 5:13, “…Is any merry? let him sing psalms,” that “sing psalms” would exclude the playing
of musical instruments. Well, if that were the case, then what else would James
5:13 exclude? Notice, the context of James 5:13 is not dealing with the church assembly, but with the individual
Christian life. If Thomas wants to challenge that this is talking about the church
assembly, then he will have to allow solo singing during the worship service
because James said, “Let HIM
(singular) sing psalms.” Nothing is said about the congregation singing! Again,
this is talking about the individual Christian life. So James said, “Is any
cheerful? Let him sing psalms.” If “sing psalms” excludes playing musical
instruments, would it also exclude whistling or humming? Is Thomas willing to
tell us that if a Christian is cheerful, James 5:13 would exclude them from
whistling or humming or smiling or anything else other than “sing psalms”? If James 5:13 excludes
musical instruments, then it would exclude them in the Christian’s walk! This
would be a total exclusion to musical instruments! This would mean that
Christians could not play musical instruments in school band or the privacy of
their home!
James 5:13
also says, “Is any among you afflicted? let him pray…” Does “let him pray” exclude Christians from
seeking counseling if they are afflicted? I think Thomas would say, “No.” James
5:14 says, “Is any sick among you?
let him call for the elders of the church; and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the
Lord.” If “sing psalms” in verse 13
excludes playing instruments, does “let
them pray over him” in verse 14 exclude Christians from going to the
doctor? Does “let them pray over him”
indicate that if a Christian goes to a doctor they “transgress the doctrine of
Christ” (2 John 9) by “adding to” the
word of God (Revelation 22:18)? Again, I’m sure Thomas will say it does not.
Well, if “let him pray” (James 5:13a)
doesn’t exclude seeking counseling and “let
them pray over him” (James 5:14) doesn’t exclude going to doctors, then how
in the world can someone say that “let
him sing psalms” (James 5:13b) excludes musical instruments? That doctrine
is as inconsistent as can be!
A major error
to all this is when Thomas says “God specified singing” as if God breathed the
English Bible. “Sing,” “sing praise,” and “sing psalms” are all English translations from the original. So,
what needs to be determined is, did the English translators mean to express
that musical instruments were excluded by their translations of “sing praise” or “sing psalms”? Young’s Literal
Translation of James 5:13 states “let him sing psalms.” Thomas would want you to believe that because Dr.
Young translated this “sing psalms”
that this excludes musical instruments, but this absolutely is not the case!
Dr. Young in his Analytical Concordance
to the Bible, p. 893 defined “sing
psalms” as “to sing praise with a
musical instrument.” So, again we see that “sing psalms” does not exclude musical instruments, in fact to the
English translator “sing psalms” included the idea of musical
instruments!
One thing
that Thomas has overlooked in his assessment of NT worship is that Christians
are encouraged to “admonish one another in
psalms and hymns and spiritual songs” (Colossians 3:16/Ephesians 5:19). What
is a psalm? Joseph Thayer (p. 675), who was a translator of the ASV, defined a
“psalm” as:
“a striking, twanging; spec. a striking the chords of a musical
instrument; hence a pious song, a psalm, Eph. v.19; Col. iii.16.”
J.B. Lightfoot, another translator of the ASV, in Epistle to Colossians, p. 233 said:
“… the leading idea of psalmos is a musical accompaniment…”
Richard Trench (another ASV translator), Synonyms of the New Testament, p. 285
stated that a “psalm” was a “song sung with this musical accompaniment.” Three different translators of the ASV all
defined a “psalm” a “song with musical
accompaniment!” The translators of the American
Standard Version understood Colossians 3:16, “admonish one another in psalms” as being a reference to playing musical instruments! When Paul
instructed Christians to admonish one another in PSALMS, a psalm is a “song sung to musical accompaniment.” That is Biblical authority for musical instruments
in NT worship!
The first
converts in Ephesus were Jews (Acts 19:1-6). Those Jewish converts would
understand the term “psalm” by its
normal usage from the OT (LXX). Consider Thomas’ illustration of Communion. Thomas
indicated that “bread” and “fruit of the vine” are authorized in the
Lord’s Supper, but roast lamb is not. Apparently Thomas understands that the NT
authority of “bread” and “fruit of the vine” is based upon what
was previously established in the OT Passover. Not just any bread will do for Communion. You cannot eat Wonder Bread or Mrs. Baird’s and scripturally observe
Communion! The type of bread authorized for Communion is what was previously established
in the OT as unleavened bread (Exodus
12:8)! The same is true with “fruit of
the vine.” You cannot take
tomato juice or blueberry juice just because they grow on a vine! Rather “blood” and “fruit of the vine” are terms previously established in the OT in
reference to the pure (fermented) “blood
of the grapes” (Deuteronomy 32:14; Isaiah 32:12 LXX)!
When we take
Thomas’ advice and “apply the same principle to music in worship” we find that
Colossians 3:16 and Ephesians 5:19 authorize “psalms” in NT worship, yet the meaning of “psalms” was already established in the OT (LXX) as a “song sung to musical accompaniment” (Job 21:12;
Psalm 71:22; Amos 5:23).
We see from a passage such as 1 Corinthians 14:26 that when
early Christians “came together” as
an assembly that “psalms” i.e. “a
song sung to musical accompaniment”
were in ordinary use. Thus we see that Thomas is absolutely wrong in his claim that “the New Testament … nowhere
authorizes us to use ‘mechanical instruments of music in New Testament
worship’” or that First Century Christians “did not practice it.” Musical
instruments in worship are authorized by the Scriptures and were in fact used
by First Century Christians.
The height of
Thomas’ error is when he claimed that “Singing is the Only Kind of Music God
has Authorized in N.T. Worship!” and dared to list Ephesians 5:19! Ephesians
5:19 (NIV) states “…Sing AND make music
in your heart to the Lord.” “Sing” is
not the ONLY action authorized in
Ephesians 5:19! Both “sing” AND “make music” are authorized! “Sing”
AND “make music” are TWO
actions, not one! Thomas has already conceded that “make music” authorizes musical instruments!
“If God had only said, ‘Make music [generic] in NT worship,’
then a piano, organ, or guitar would have been included in the generic
command.” (p. 4-5)
“Make music” is
exactly what Ephesians 5:19 says! Thomas has acknowledged that “make music” includes playing a piano,
organ or guitar! That’s NT authority for musical instruments in worship!
In the
remaining space, I too want to emphasize the importance of this discussion. The
warning against “adding to” the word of God also warns against “taking away”
from the word (Revelation 22:19). Those who “excluded” Christians from eating certain meats that God had
authorized were labeled as teaching “doctrines
of devils” (1Timothy 4:1-3). Anyone who excludes something that was
authorized by the apostles (in this case musical instruments) does not truly
serve the Lord Jesus (Romans 16:17-18). We must “earnestly contend for the
faith which was once delivered unto the saints” (Jude 3). I look forward to
Thomas’ response.