Instrumental Music Debate Thrasher/Weatherly JLW 1st Affirm

Here is my first affirmative speech from the second half of my debate with Dr. Thrasher on the issue of Instrumental Music in NT Church Worship.

 

Unfortunately since submitting this First Affirmative speech, my friend Dr. Thrasher has been dealing with some health issues. Therefore we have not been able to continue this debate beyond my First Affirmative speech. If at any time Dr. Thrasher is able to continue with the debate, we will go forward. However, if we never come to that point my First Affirmative will be the final installment in this debate. I ask that you keep Dr. Thrasher and his family in your prayers.

 

Weatherly’s First Affirmative

 

"The Bible teaches that the use of mechanical instruments of music in New Testament worship is by Divine authority."

 

          It is indeed an honor to present what I believe to be the truth of God’s word in this debate. The proposition is defined as follows:

 

Bible – The Scriptures from Genesis to Revelation

Teaches – instructs, imparts knowledge

Use of – Playing on

Instruments of Music – drums, guitar, organ, trumpet, etc.

New Testament – Calvary to Second Advent

Worship – praise or adoration

Divine authority – acceptable by God

 

First Argument

 

Colossians 3:16,  “Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in PSALMS (ψαλμος) and hymns and spiritual SONGS (ωδη), singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.”

 

          I won’t dedicate much space to this argument since plenty has already been said. We see from Colossians 3:16 and 1 Corinthians 14:26 that psalms are authorized in New Testament worship, and were in use in the early church. Three ASV translators (Lightfoot, Thayer, Trench) defined a psalm as, “a song sung to MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT.”  This definition is based upon Biblical word usage (LXX Job 21:12; Psalm 71:22; Amos 5:23). So, when we read the word “psalm” in the NT, we must understand that the passage is referencing “a song sung to MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT.” The standard Greek lexicons define a “psalm” as having musical accompaniment.

 

Abbott-Smith, “a sacred song sung to musical accompaniment, a psalm.”

 

Bullinger, “a song as accompanied by stringed instruments; hence, gen., a psalm or song in commemoration of mercies received, rather than of praise to God.”

 

Liddell-Scott, “song sung to the harp, psalm LXX, N.T.”

 

Souter, “a psalm, that is a song of praise, &c., to God, with an accompaniment on a harp”

 

Thayer, “the leading idea of psalm is a musical accompaniment”

 

Vincent, Word Studies, 1:763, “Our word psalm, derived from this, is, properly, a tune played upon a stringed instrument.”

 

Vine, “The psalmos denoted that which had a musical accompaniment.”

 

Also, we see from the Biblical usage of ode (song) [cf. Rev. 5:8-9; 14:2-3; 15:2-3], that a song (ode) includes the idea of MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT. Thomas stated in his answer to my Question #5 that “sing (ado) the song” “is an ADDITIONAL ACTION to playing upon mechanical instruments of music” (emphasis JLW). However, much like Exodus 15:20-21, “sing” is the ONLY action used to describe the worship. Revelation 15:2-3 does NOT say, “sing AND play;” it simply says “sing,” which we can see from the context included the playing of musical instruments.

 

 

Second Argument

 

Ephesians 5:19 (NIV), “Speak to one another with psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, Sing AND make music in your heart to the Lord;”

 

          The New Testament authorizes TWO ACTION in Christian worship: Sing AND Make Music. “Sing” (ado) is distinguished from “Make Music” (psallo) in this passage i.e. TWO different actions. There are only two kinds of music: vocal and instrumental. Since “sing” is distinguished from “make music” in this passage, “sing” would refer to vocal music. Since “sing” in this passage refers to vocal music, then the only other “music” to “make” would be instrumental music! Thomas has already admitted in his first affirmative that “make music” would include a piano, organ, or guitar. So, Ephesians 5:19, “sing AND make music” authorizes BOTH vocal and instrumental music in Christian worship.

          Thomas’ comments on Ephesians 5:19 thus far have been:

 

“We are doing it ‘in our hearts,’ not on a mechanical instrument of music!” (Second Affirmative)

 

 “With the heart as the designated instrument.” (Third Affirmative)

However, I want you to notice that the prepositional phrase “in the heart” modifies BOTH “sing” AND “make music.” The conjunction “and” couples the two verbs. Thus, the phrase “in your heart” modifies both verbs, sustaining equal relation to both. This is similar to Acts 2:38 where “in the name of Jesus” modifies both “repent” and “be baptized.” In my question #2, Thomas would not acknowledge that “in the name of Jesus” modifies both “repent” and “be baptized” because he knows where I will take this application. However, I’ve debated his close friend Pat Donahue several times on the Baptismal Formula, and Pat has recognized that “in the name of Jesus” in Acts 2:38 modifies both “repent” and “be baptized” (see Pat’s Baptismal Formula chart #10). Also, Colossians 3:16 (Greek text) states, “singing in your hearts,” yet Thomas in his answer to my question #4 understands that the “heart” is not the instrument we “sing” with. Thus in Ephesians 5:19, the “heart” is not the instrument we “make music” with! The phrase “in your heart” means “heartily” or “sincerely.” We are to “sing” (vocal melody) and “make music” (instrumental melody) “in our heart” (sincerely) to the Lord!

 

Third Argument

 

          The phrase make music comes from the Greek verb psallo. The verb psallo is found five times in the New Testament: Romans 15:9; (2) 1 Corinthians 14:15, Ephesians 5:19; and James 5:13. The word psallo has the same meaning in each of these verses. This means that whatever psallo means in Ephesians 5:19 – which is instrumental music, it also means in the other four occurrences. There are various translations that indicate this idea of instrumental music in the Greek word psallo.

 

Romans 15:9:

 

Lenski, “… and will sing and PLAY PSALMS to thy name.”

 

Concordant Literal Version, “… And to thy name shall I be PLAYING MUSIC.”

 

1 Corinthians 14:15:

 

Julia Smith Translation, “… I will PLAY ON THE HARP in the spirit, and I will play also on the harp in the mind.”

 

Apostolic Bible Polyglot, “… I will strum praise with the Spirit, but I will strum praise also with the intellect.”

 

Ephesians 5:19:

 

Revised New Testament, “… singing and PLAYING to the Lord in your heart.”

 

Moffatt, “… praise the Lord heartily with words and MUSIC.”

 

The Amplified Bible, “… offering praise with voice (and INSTRUMENTS) …”

 

James 5:13:

 

Rotherham Emphasized New Testament, “… Cheerful, is any? Let him STRIKE THE STRINGS;”

 

Riverside New Testament, “Is any one cheerful? Let him SING WITH THE HARP.”

 

Montgomery New Testament, “Is any in good spirits? Let him SING UNTO HIS HARP.”

 

We see from these (and other) translations that psallo is not limited to “a cappella singing,” but refers to MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT! Even translations in different languages indicate that psallo refers to PLAYING a musical instrument.

 

Ephesians 5:19:

 

Coptic NT (2^nd Century), “praising and playing to the Lord in your hearts”

 

Icelandic Bible, “singing and playing to the Lord”

 

Luther German Bible (1545), “sing and play to the Lord”

 

Norwegian Bible, “sing and play for the Lord”

 

 

Fourth Argument

 

Romans 15:9 (ISV), “So that the gentiles may glorify God for his mercy. As it is written, ‘That is why I will praise you among the gentiles; I will sing praises (ψαλω) to your name.’”

 

          Romans 15:9 is a quote from Psalm 18:49 (LXX). The Septuagint, grammatically speaking, was the mother of the New Testament. In Romans 15:9 Paul quotes the Septuagint which uses the Greek word psallo to translate the Hebrew word zamar. So whatever zamar meant in the Hebrew Old Testament so also did psallo mean in the Septuagint, and thus that is what psallo means in the New Testament. The same Hebrew word zamar used in Psalm 18:49 which Paul quotes in Romans 15:9, is also found in Psalm 33:2 in reference to MUSICAL INSTRUMENTS!

 

“Praise the LORD with harp: sing (zamar/psallo) unto him with the psaltery and an instrument of ten strings.”

 

Not only that, but zamar which is translated psallo in the LXX (used in Romans 15:9) is also found in Psalm 71:22 in reference to playing on the harp!

 

“I will also praise thee with the psaltery, even thy truth, O my God: unto thee will I sing (zamar/psallo) with the harp, O thou Holy One of Israel.”

 

          In Hebrew there are three basic words that refer to types of music: (1) shir which refers to vocal music; (2) nagan which means to play on a musical instrument and never refers to vocal music; and (3) zamar which blends these two meanings together,  meaning either playing on a musical instrument or to sing with musical accompaniment. Dr. J.W. Roberts (church of Christ denomination) confirmed this:

 

“There are two words in Hebrew which mean ‘play’ or ‘sing to accompaniment.’ They are nagan and zamar. There are some 12 different words or expressions which are translated with the idea of ‘sing.’ The most common one is shir.” (Restoration Quarterly, 1962, 6:59 emphasis JLW)

 

The word psallo in the Septuagint is used to translate BOTH nagan, which means “play an instrument” and zamar which means “to sing with musical accompaniment”, but NEVER translates shir which refers to vocal music. That is the Biblical usage of the Greek word psallo. Whatever psallo means in the Septuagint i.e. “play” or “sing to accompaniment;” so also it means in the NT (Romans 15:9)! Thus psallo by no means refers to unaccompanied singing, but refers to singing with musical instruments. This is the word used five times in reference to New Testament worship!

 

Fifth Argument

 

          Finally, I will present the testimony of the standard Greek lexicons to show that psallo refers to singing with MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT.

 

J.H. Bass, p. 244, “to touch, touch the strings of a musical instrument, hence to sing, sing praises or psalms to God.”

 

Notice this word “hence” indicated in red. The word “hence” means “therefore” and identifies an equal relationship between the phrase before and after the word. In other words, when the lexicographer says, “sing praises or psalms to God” it includes the idea of “touching the strings of a musical instrument” i.e. they are synonymous phrases. This is important to note when we look at other lexicons.

 

Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, p. 899, “in our lit., in accordance w. OT usage, sing (to the accompaniment of a harp), sing praise”

 

Again, there is no distinction between “sing (to the accompaniment of a harp)” and “sing praise.” These are synonymous phrases.

 

George Ricker Berry, p. 109, “to sing, accompanied with instruments, to sing psalms, Ro. xv.9; 1 Cor. xiv.15; Ep. v.19; Ja v.13”

 

E.W. Bullinger, p. 493, “In lxx. and N.T., to sing, to chant accompanied by stringed instruments Eph. v. 19.”

 

Balz & Schneider, Exegetical Dictionary of the NT, vol. 3, p. 495, “This vb., which occurs 5 times in the NT, actually means ‘pluck/play a stringed instrument’ or ‘sing to the accompaniment of a harp.’ In the NT it always refers to a song of praise to God (dat.).”

 

John Groves, p. 608, “to touch, strike softly; to play on the harp; to sing to the harp; to praise, celebrate.”

 

W.J. Hickie, p. 211, “to strike a musical instrument; to sing hymns, James v.13. Ephes. v.19. Rom. xv.9. 1 Cor. xiv.15”

 

G. W. Lampe, p. 1539, “sing with musical accompaniment; esp., sing psalms Eph. 5:19”

 

Liddell-Scott, p. 2018, “sing to harp, LXX Ps. 7.18, 9.12, al.; to kardia Ep. Eph. 5.19;”

 

Clinton Morrison, Analytical Concordance to the RSV of NT, p. 377, “MELODY, MAKE pluck, sing to a harp: ψαλλω PSALLO Eph 5.19”

 

Edward Robinson, p. 904, “In Sept. and N.T. to sing, to chant, properly as accompanying stringed instruments absolutely James v. 13. c.”

 

 Alexander Souter, p. 286, “I play on the harp (or other stringed instrument)”

 

James Strong (5567), “to twitch or twang, i.e. to play on a stringed instrument (celebrate the divine worship with music and accompanying odes)”

 

Joseph Thayer, p. 675, “Sept. for ngn and much oftener for zmr; to sing to the music of the harp; in the N.T. to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song, Jas. v.13”

 

Robert Young, 892, “To sing praise with a musical instrument ψαλλω, Rom. 15.9; 1 Co. 14.15”

 

Spiros Zodhiates, p. 87, “to rub or touch the surface, to play on a stringed instrument.”

 

All of these lexicons indicate the New Testament meaning of psallo as to “sing WITH MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT.” Thus musical instruments are authorized in NT worship.

 



Instrumental Music Debate Thrasher-Weatherly Questions Part 2

Below are the questions exchanged between Dr. Thrasher and myself for the second half of our debate started in 2012 on Instrumental Music in New Testament Worship.

 

 

Questions for Thomas Thrasher

November 30, 2012

 

1.     Does the word psallo (ψαλλω) have the same meaning in each of its five occurrences in the New Testament?

 

The meaning of psallo, according to several standard lexicons, is:

Thayer: “… in the N.T. to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song …”

Green: “… in New Testament, to sing praises.”

Bagster: “… in New Testament, to sing praises.”

Robinson: “… in New Testament, to sing, and construed with a dative of person, to sing in honor or in praise of any one, to sing praises to, to celebrate in song.”

Abbott-Smith: “… in New Testament, to sing a hymn, sing praise.”

Analytical Greek Lexicon: “… in the New Testament, to sing praises.”

In English translations psallo is most frequently rendered sing; however, various translations sometimes use other English words to convey the idea [e.g., sing praises, make melody (in your heart), etc.].

 

2.     In Acts 2:38, does the phrase “in the name of Jesus Christ” modify both “repent” and “be baptized?”

 

Grammatically, I think “in the name of Jesus Christ” in Acts 2:38 modifies “be baptized.” However, Colossians 3:17 says, “And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him.” This verse shows that “all” (including repentance) is to be done “in the name of the Lord Jesus.”

 

3.     In Mark 16:16 into what are believers to be immersed?

 

Water (cf. Acts 10: 47-48; 1 Peter 3:20-21)

 

4.     In Colossians 3:16 with what instrument are believers to “sing unto the Lord?”

 

Colossians 3:16 says, “… singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.” Singing is done with the voice, the sounds produced by the various parts of the physical body designed by God for that purpose. However, for the singing to be “to the Lord” the songs must be in harmony with the Scriptures and spring from the heart, not merely a production of sounds.

 

 

5.     In Revelation 15:3, “sing (αδω) the song”:

A: Includes the playing of musical instruments (Rev. 15:2)

B: Excludes the playing of musical instruments (Rev. 15:2)

C: Neither includes nor excludes the playing of musical instruments

D. Is an additional action to playing upon mechanical instruments of music.

 

The word “sing” means sing; it does not mean “playing on mechanical instruments.” Playing upon mechanical instruments is a separate/additional action (an action unauthorized in NT worship) from singing. The way we can know that mechanical instruments were used is by means of additional words (e.g., “harps” – Revelation 15:2, assuming “harps” were literal in a book that abounds in figures and symbols), not from the word “sing.”  

 

 

 

Questions for Jason Weatherly

December 12, 2012

 

1.       What are the differences in meaning for the words ψαλμοῖς, ὕμνοις, and ᾠδαῖς πνευματικαῖς (in their various forms) and do these meanings require the use of a mechanical instrument of music?

 

Answer: The leading idea of ψαλμοῖς is musical accompaniment, and that of ὕμνοις praise to God, ωδη is the general word for a song, whether accompanied or unaccompanied (Thayer, p. 637)

 

2.       What passages of Scripture authorize the following mechanical instruments in NT worship:  piano, organ, trombone, saxophone, clarinet?

 

Answer: Ephesians 5:19 – “sing and make music”

 

3.       You alleged in your third negative speech that I “admitted that ‘make music’ included musical instruments” and that “’make music’ included a piano, organ, or guitar.”   This charge is false in view of your quotation of what I ACTUALLY said:  “If God had only said, ‘Make music [generic] in NT worship,’ then a piano, organ, or guitar would have been included in the generic command.”  In what verse of Scripture does God ONLY say “make music in NT worship”?

 

Answer: This is actually a response to an argument rather than a question. The truth is I made this argument in my FIRST negative speech! You had two speeches to answer this argument and chose not to. To answer your question, the word “only” as in “If God had ONLY said, ‘Make music [generic] in NT worship’,” can mean “at the very least”(Webster) and is synonymous with “just” or “merely.” The statement “If God had only said…” doesn’t mean those are the “only” words God said i.e. “make music ONLY.” It means “If God had just or merely said…” and both you AND the readers know this! What you are doing in this question is what is called “backstroking” or “waffling” on a statement! Ephesians 5:19 DOES say, “make music” which you admit would include a piano, organ, or guitar. If you say, “Ephesians 5:19 does not say ‘make music [generic] in NT worship,’” Then you either waffle on your statement that “make music” is generic, or you claim that Ephesians 5:19 is not “in NT worship.”

 

4.       How many people in a worship assembly must “make melody” for their worship to be acceptable to God?  Scripture please.

 

Answer: First of all let me point out to the reader that Thomas admitted in Question 3 of my first set of questions that Ephesians 5:18-21 (“make melody” vs. 19) “ARE NOT limited to the church assembly” (emphasis JLW). Secondly, there is no passage that indicates “how many people in a worship assembly must ‘make melody’ for their worship to be acceptable to God.”

 

5.       Can a Christian worship God acceptably by singing without playing upon a mechanical instrument of music or is it sinful to worship without playing upon a mechanical instrument of music? Please cite a Bible passage that so teaches.

 

Answer: This is basically the same as your Question 1 from your first set of questions. The answer is still the same. “Yes [a Christian can worship God acceptably by singing without playing upon a mechanical instrument of music], but it is unscriptural to teach that believers CANNOT sing praise to God with musical instruments.” Acts 16:25 would be an example of Christians singing without instrumental accompaniment.

 

 



Instrumental Music Debate Thrasher-Weatherly JLW 3rd Negative

Weatherly’s Final Negative

 

          Thomas’ final affirmative was a repeat of things I’ve already responded to. For the most part, my rebuttals have either been ignored or overlooked. Thomas again referred to “adding to” (Revelation 22:18-19) the commandments of God. This was dealt with in my first negative. Thomas NEVER answered it!

The warning against “adding to” the word of God also warns against “taking away” from the word (Revelation 22:19). Those who “excluded” Christians from eating certain meats that God had authorized were labeled as teaching “doctrines of devils” (1Timothy 4:1-3). Anyone who excludes something that was authorized by the apostles (in this case musical instruments) does not truly serve the Lord Jesus (Romans 16:17-18).

Ephesians 5:19 says, “sing AND make music,” NOT “sing only!” Thomas admitted that “make music” included musical instruments!

 

“If God had only said, ‘Make music [generic] in NT worship,’ then a piano, organ, or guitar would have been included in the generic command.”

 

The closest Thomas has come to commenting on this is by saying:

 

 “We are doing it ‘in our hearts,’ not on a mechanical instrument of music!” (Second Affirmative)

 

 “With the heart as the designated instrument.” (Third Affirmative)

 

Thomas totally IGNORED my rebuttal to this argument in my second negative!

 

David praised God “in his heart” (Psalm 9:1; 57:7; 111:1; 138:1), time and time again WITH musical instruments (Psalm 33:2; 57:8; 71:22)! So, “in your heart” does not indicate “not on musical instruments.” “In your heart” (Ephesians 5:19) modifies BOTH “sing” and “make music.” So if the “heart” is the “instrument,” it is the “instrument” for BOTH “singing” and “making music!”   Colossians 3:16 literally says, “singing in your heart” (Interlinear, YLT). If “in your heart” describes something that is inward and silent, then “singing in your heart,” would also have to be inward and silent! That would mean no verbal singing in church! The truth is, “in your heart” is a Biblical idiom meaning, “sincerely, heartily.”     Moffatt Translation (Ephesians 5:19), “… praise the Lord heartily with words and music.”     Thayer p. 325, “of things done from the heart i.e. cordially or sincerely, truly”   That is, when Christians “sing” and “make music” (which Thomas admits includes a piano, organ, or guitar); it is to be “in your heart” that is “heartily” or “sincerely.”

 

Thomas did not even try to answer this rebuttal! Thomas went on to say:

 

“Jason has resorted to arguments based upon his assertions about the meanings of Greek words.”

 

I quoted what Greek scholars, translators of our English Bibles, said. Thomas dismissed these comments, and offered no proof to the contrary. Thomas referenced a book by M.C. Kurfees. That’s correct, and men such as O.E. Payne and M.D. Clubb wrote books showing his doctrine false. Thomas stated:

 

 “My first affirmative contained not one appeal to Greek but rather to the English translations … Any proposition in the realm of religion that cannot be proved by our English Bible is not true—it cannot be proved.”

 

What about believers who don’t speak English? Paul and Apollos must have found it nearly impossible to debate the Jews without an English Bible! Ridiculous statements as this remind me of those who say, “If the KJV was good enough for the Apostle Paul, it’s good enough for me!” Thomas didn’t have any reservation using Greek in his debate with D.L. Welch on the baptismal formula. So, Thomas proves his own statement false. Besides, I have shown from English that “sing” DOES NOT exclude the playing of musical instruments.

 

          Thomas responded to the testimony of the ASV translators (Lightfoot, Trench, Thayer) that a “psalm” is a “song sung to musical accompaniment” by simply quoting various translations of Ephesians 5:19. One of those translations was the ASV! Thomas, quoting the ASV DOES NOT negate the translators’ definition of psalm as “a song sung to musical accompaniment.” You accept the ASV “translation,” now accept the ASV translators’ “definition!” When you quote the ASV and claim that they intended to convey singing without musical instruments, you are absolutely WRONG! The ASV translators told us what they meant by psalm, and that is “a song sung to MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT!”

 

          Thomas again emphasized “speaking” (Ephesians 5:19) as if this participle indicates that psalms denoted unaccompanied singing. I responded to this in my second negative, and Thomas made NO attempt to answer it!

 

 

Participles DO NOT determine the definition of nouns! There is NO grammarian that will back this up! “Speaking” no more indicates that “psalms” are “vocal only,” than “preaching” (Luke 3:3) indicates that “baptism” was “verbal only!” Also laleo (“speaking”) is not limited to the human voice. Both Thayer and Eadie indicated that laleo was used in reference to animals and musical instruments.

          Thomas responded to my illustration of a person saying, “I’m going to sing you a song,” and then play the guitar while they sang by saying that people wouldn’t think this strange because they are “basing their conclusions on common practice TODAY.” Not so Thomas! I showed you in my first negative that in Exodus 15:20-21 the women went out “with timbrels,” and Miriam said, “SING ye to the LORD.” All the way back in Exodus, the “common practice” was that “sing” did not exclude the playing of musical instruments, nor was the playing of these timbrels considered to be “adding to” the command! The same is true with “SING” in 1 Samuel 18:6-7 and Revelation 5:8-9! It was the “common practice” that “SING” included the playing of those musical instruments! This is the BIBLICAL DEFINITION of “sing.” I disagree with Thomas that MOST so-called “Christians” would accept “sprinkling” as “baptism.” I would think the majority understand that those who “sprinkle” violate the Biblical definition of “baptism,” just as much as those who command “accappella singing only” violate the Biblical definition of “sing!”

 

          Thomas responded to my statement that “accappella” is not found in the Bible by saying:

 

“‘SINGING’ is found in the NT as an act of worship, but ‘PLAYING’ is ‘found nowhere’ in the NT!”

 

This statement is absolutely false! The Coptic Bible (an ancient translation still read in Egypt today) translates Ephesians 5:19 as, “praising and PLAYING to the Lord in your hearts.” Norwegian NT states “Sing and PLAY for the Lord in your hearts.” Luther’s German Translation, “Sing and PLAY to the Lord in your hearts.” Scandinavian NT, “Sing and PLAY with your heart to God the Father.” The Revised New Testament, “Singing and PLAYING to the Lord in your hearts.” And even Thomas, himself, admitted that “make music” included the PLAYING of a piano, organ, or guitar!

 

          Thomas asked if I would admit that unaccompanied singing occurred in Acts 16:25. Of course I’ll admit this! The context demands this! However the verb Luke used for “sing” was humneo NOT psallo! Acts 16:25 was an “incidental.” If this is Thomas’ authority for “accappella singing only,” then this singing must be done at midnight by two men who are naked and beaten!

 

          Next Thomas offered a historical argument claiming “substantial evidence exists that the music of the early church was ‘a cappella’.” Thomas’ argument is more hysterical than it is historical! Notice Thomas quoted Wikipedia as “Jewish and Christian music were originally a cappella.” Jewish music was originally accappella?! The first reference, the very origin of Jewish music is Exodus 15:20-21 where the women went out WITH TIMBRELS and sang unto the LORD! Neither Jewish, nor Christian music was originally accappella! Thomas mentioned McKinnon’s book (1965). Apparently Thomas is unaware of McKinnon’s later work, Music in Early Christian Literature (1987), in which he stated (p. 3):

 

“Music historians have tended to assume that there is a direct connection, that is, that ecclesiastical authorities consciously strove to maintain their music free from the incursion of musical instruments. There is LITTLE EVIDENCE of this in the sources however.” (Bold emphasis mine JLW)

 

The Montanist (c. 157) played harps (ANF 3:4)! Clement (190) mentioned musical instruments in connection to Colossians 3:16 (ANF 1:249)! Tertullian (225) referred to musical instruments in the context of Ephesians 5:19 (ANF 4:468)! Ephraim (373) spoke of praising God with a lute or harp (PNF 13:227)! Jerome (420) wrote of “luteplayers for the Saviour” (NPNF 6:107)! Augustine (430) encouraged singing with the lyre or psaltery (Hastings, Encyclopedia Religion and Ethics, 9:31)! For more information on instrumental music in church history check out theweatherlyreport.blogspot.com.

 

          Thomas argued that the instruments in 1 Samuel 18:6-7 and Revelation 5:8-9 were “in addition” to singing. Thomas fails to understand that the term “sing” was used to describe BOTH the vocal and instrumental music! That means it was “included” not “in addition” to singing.

 

          Thomas limits James 5:13 to “individual worship” rather than the Christian life because “many versions” translate psallo as “sing praise.” The context determines whether “individual worship” is in view. The passage is dealing with the Christian’s life and whether or not he is “cheerful.” Given Thomas’ rational, Christians should only worship God if they are cheerful!
 

          Thomas again stated that James 5:14 doesn’t exclude doctors because of other passages (Matthew 9:12), but Thomas did not attempt to answer the rebuttal I made:

 

 

If Thomas believes that Matthew 9:12 is authority to see a doctor, then by the same token one could say Luke 15:25 is authority for instrumental music and dancing in the Father’s house.

Concerning Thomas’ “gopher wood” argument, Thomas stated:
 

“Jason contended that ‘gopher wood’ was not a specific kind of wood. If so, then why did God command Noah … Was that instruction meaningless to Noah?”
 

That’s not even what I said! I showed from the Septuagint that “gopher wood” wasn’t a “species” of wood but referred to “four-cornered wood.” The wood could be “ANY species” (oak, pine, etc.) so long as it was “four-cornered.”
 

          Concerning singing psalms with musical instruments Thomas stated:
 

“However, we are commanded to sing ‘psalms’ (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16). Consequently, according to Jason, it is a sin not to use mechanical instruments in worship, for we cannot sing ‘psalms’ without them!”
 

Thomas’ statement is misleading. The participles denote a “result” (Wallace, Greek Grammar, pp. 644-645). This is “authority” to use musical instruments, not a “command” to use them. However, anyone who teaches against musical instruments is in sin because they would be “taking away” from the word of God, and excluding believers from doing what is authorized!
 

          Finally, Thomas again referred to the classical and NT meaning of psallo. I gave a lengthy response in my second negative showing the error of how Thomas handles the lexicons. I showed how Thomas must interpolate things into Thayer’s lexicon for it to say what Thomas thinks it means. I showed that none of the lexicons define psallo as “sing rather than play upon mechanical instruments” as Thomas stated. I even quoted Abbott-Smith who indicated that both he and Thayer simply grouped the NT passages together, and did not mean to indicate that the idea of instruments was excluded. What did Thomas say about this? NOTHING! Psallo is NEVER used in the Bible to mean “pluck a hair” or “twang a bow.” Psallo is always used in reference to music. That is its Biblical usage!
 

          Thomas mentioned words change meaning through history. Even Thayer indicated that psallo still meant “to play on a stringed instrument … Plutarch [A.D. 85]” during the time of the writing of the NT! I could give many other references to show that psallo still meant play a musical instrument during NT times. Thayer’s reference to “in the NT” was only to show that psallo in the NT refers to a song of “praise” as opposed to a secular song, not that it didn’t include musical accompaniment.
 

          I have shown that “sing” does not exclude instruments. I have shown that the translators define “psalms” and “sing praise” as referring to singing with musical accompaniment. I have shown that the NT authorizes two actions: “sing and make music.” Thomas admits “make music” included a piano, organ, or guitar. And thus, Thomas’ proposition has been refuted.