Below are the questions exchanged between Dr. Thrasher and myself for the second half of our debate started in 2012 on Instrumental Music in New Testament Worship.
Questions for Thomas Thrasher
November 30, 2012
1. Does
the word psallo (ψαλλω) have the same
meaning in each of its five occurrences in the New Testament?
The
meaning of psallo, according to
several standard lexicons, is:
Thayer: “… in the N.T.
to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song …”
Green: “… in New
Testament, to sing praises.”
Bagster: “… in New Testament, to sing
praises.”
Robinson: “… in New Testament, to sing, and
construed with a dative of person, to sing in honor or in praise of any one, to
sing praises to, to celebrate in song.”
Abbott-Smith: “… in New Testament, to sing a
hymn, sing praise.”
Analytical Greek Lexicon: “… in the New
Testament, to sing praises.”
In English translations psallo is most frequently rendered sing; however, various
translations sometimes use other English words to convey the idea [e.g., sing
praises, make melody (in your heart), etc.].
2. In
Acts 2:38, does the phrase “in the name of Jesus Christ” modify both “repent” and
“be baptized?”
Grammatically,
I think “in the name of Jesus Christ” in Acts 2:38 modifies “be baptized.”
However, Colossians 3:17 says, “And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in
the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him.” This
verse shows that “all” (including repentance) is to be done “in the name of the
Lord Jesus.”
3. In
Mark 16:16 into what are believers to be immersed?
Water
(cf. Acts 10: 47-48; 1 Peter 3:20-21)
4. In
Colossians 3:16 with what instrument are believers to “sing unto the Lord?”
Colossians
3:16 says, “… singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.” Singing is done
with the voice, the sounds produced by the various parts of the physical body
designed by God for that purpose. However, for the singing to be “to the Lord”
the songs must be in harmony with the Scriptures and spring from the heart, not
merely a production of sounds.
5. In
Revelation 15:3, “sing (αδω) the song”:
A: Includes the playing of musical
instruments (Rev. 15:2)
B: Excludes the playing of musical
instruments (Rev. 15:2)
C: Neither includes nor excludes the
playing of musical instruments
D. Is an additional
action to playing upon mechanical instruments of music.
The word “sing” means sing; it does not mean “playing on mechanical instruments.” Playing
upon mechanical instruments is a separate/additional action (an action
unauthorized in NT worship) from singing. The way we can know that mechanical
instruments were used is by means of additional words (e.g., “harps” –
Revelation 15:2, assuming “harps” were literal in a book that abounds in
figures and symbols), not from the word “sing.”
Questions for Jason Weatherly
December 12, 2012
1. What are the differences in meaning for
the words ψαλμοῖς, ὕμνοις, and ᾠδαῖς
πνευματικαῖς (in their various
forms) and do these meanings require the use of a mechanical instrument of
music?
Answer: The leading idea of ψαλμοῖς is musical accompaniment, and that of ὕμνοις
praise to God, ωδη is the general word for a song, whether accompanied or unaccompanied (Thayer, p. 637)
2. What passages of Scripture authorize the
following mechanical instruments in NT worship: piano, organ, trombone, saxophone, clarinet?
Answer: Ephesians 5:19 – “sing
and make music”
3. You alleged in your third negative speech that
I “admitted that ‘make music’ included musical instruments” and that “’make
music’ included a piano, organ, or guitar.” This charge is false in view of your
quotation of what I ACTUALLY said: “If
God had only said, ‘Make music
[generic] in NT worship,’ then a piano, organ, or guitar would have been
included in the generic command.” In
what verse of Scripture does God ONLY
say “make music in NT worship”?
Answer: This is actually a response to an argument rather
than a question. The truth is I made this argument in my FIRST negative speech! You had two speeches to answer this argument
and chose not to. To answer your question, the word “only” as in “If God had ONLY said, ‘Make music [generic] in NT
worship’,” can mean “at the very least”(Webster)
and is synonymous with “just” or “merely.” The statement “If God had only
said…” doesn’t mean those are the “only” words God said i.e. “make music ONLY.” It means “If God had just or merely said…” and both you AND
the readers know this! What you are doing in this question is what is called
“backstroking” or “waffling” on a statement! Ephesians 5:19 DOES say, “make music” which you admit
would include a piano, organ, or guitar. If you say, “Ephesians 5:19 does not
say ‘make music [generic] in NT worship,’” Then you either waffle on your
statement that “make music” is generic, or you claim that Ephesians 5:19 is not
“in NT worship.”
4. How many people in a worship assembly must “make melody” for their worship to be acceptable to
God? Scripture please.
Answer: First of all let me point out to the reader that
Thomas admitted in Question 3 of my first set of questions that Ephesians
5:18-21 (“make melody” vs. 19) “ARE NOT limited
to the church assembly” (emphasis JLW). Secondly, there is no passage that
indicates “how many people in a worship assembly must ‘make melody’ for their
worship to be acceptable to God.”
5. Can a Christian worship God acceptably by
singing without playing upon a mechanical instrument of music or is it sinful
to worship without playing upon a mechanical instrument of music? Please cite a
Bible passage that so teaches.
Answer: This is basically the same as your Question 1
from your first set of questions. The answer is still the same. “Yes [a Christian can worship God acceptably by
singing without playing upon a mechanical instrument of music], but it is
unscriptural to teach that believers CANNOT
sing praise to God with musical instruments.” Acts 16:25 would be an example of
Christians singing without instrumental accompaniment.
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