In responding to the "no-formula" teaching of Don McClain of the "church of Christ" denomination, we look at Don's next chart in trying to circumvent the idea of verbally pronouncing the name of Jesus in baptism.
Don claims that in order for there to be a verbal formula, then the prepositions MUST mean pronouncement. Now, I'd just like to ask, "Where in the world did Don get any such idea?" There is absolutely NO rule in Greek grammar (or English grammar for that matter) that says that the prepositions MUST mean pronouncement. This is simply a "straw-man" argument that Don has made up. It is a "paper tiger" that he has created in order to look like a mighty hunter. The truth of the matter is that verbal pronouncement is dependent upon the prepositions (epi, en, eis) being used with "name" (onoma).
Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker, Greek - English Lexicon, p. 288 in defining the preposition "epi" (upon) states, "of persons, over which something is done SPEAK THE NAME OF JESUS OVER someone..." Bauer, et al. Lexicon (BAGD) is the most authoritative lexicon on the market today. It is the standard lexicon of Bible colleges and universities. Notice that Bauer's lexicon very much includes the idea of "verbal pronouncement" with the use of the prepositions.
However, we don't have to rely simply on Greek lexicons to understand this. The Bible let's us know that the preposition "epi" when used with "onoma" as in the phrase "in the name of" refers to a verbal pronouncement! Notice the following verse:
Lu 1:59 And it came to pass, that on the eighth day they came to circumcise the child; and they called him Zacharias, after the name of his father.
This passage is talking about the circumcision of John the baptist. If you remember the account of John's conception, the angel of the LORD appeared to Zacharias and commanded him to name his son "John." Because of Zacharias' unbelief, the angel caused Zacharias not to be able to speak. So at the circumcision of John (he was not yet named), because Zacharias couldn't speak, those that were present at the circumcision named the child "Zacharias, after the name of his father." The phrase "after the name of" in Greek is "epi to onomati" or "(upon) in the name of." Obviously, "in the name of" his father DOES NOT and CANNOT refer to the "authority" of Zacharias, because no one there had Zacharias' authority to name the child "Zacharias" (cf. Luke 1:60f). Thus "in the name of" his father, MUST refer to the "verbally pronounced" name of "Zacharias" which is obvious from the context.
This phrase "epi to onomati" (in the name of) is the exact same phrase used in Acts 2:38 in reference to water baptism: "... be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins..." Thus, the phrase "in the name of Jesus Christ" in Acts 2:38 ALSO has reference to the verbally pronounced name of Jesus Christ in baptism!! In fact the Anchor Bible translates Acts 2:38 as "be baptized CALLING ON the name of Jesus..."!!
Jason L. Weatherly
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