Instrumental Music Debate Thrasher-Weatherly JLW 3rd Negative

Weatherly’s Final Negative

 

          Thomas’ final affirmative was a repeat of things I’ve already responded to. For the most part, my rebuttals have either been ignored or overlooked. Thomas again referred to “adding to” (Revelation 22:18-19) the commandments of God. This was dealt with in my first negative. Thomas NEVER answered it!

The warning against “adding to” the word of God also warns against “taking away” from the word (Revelation 22:19). Those who “excluded” Christians from eating certain meats that God had authorized were labeled as teaching “doctrines of devils” (1Timothy 4:1-3). Anyone who excludes something that was authorized by the apostles (in this case musical instruments) does not truly serve the Lord Jesus (Romans 16:17-18).

Ephesians 5:19 says, “sing AND make music,” NOT “sing only!” Thomas admitted that “make music” included musical instruments!

 

“If God had only said, ‘Make music [generic] in NT worship,’ then a piano, organ, or guitar would have been included in the generic command.”

 

The closest Thomas has come to commenting on this is by saying:

 

 “We are doing it ‘in our hearts,’ not on a mechanical instrument of music!” (Second Affirmative)

 

 “With the heart as the designated instrument.” (Third Affirmative)

 

Thomas totally IGNORED my rebuttal to this argument in my second negative!

 

David praised God “in his heart” (Psalm 9:1; 57:7; 111:1; 138:1), time and time again WITH musical instruments (Psalm 33:2; 57:8; 71:22)! So, “in your heart” does not indicate “not on musical instruments.” “In your heart” (Ephesians 5:19) modifies BOTH “sing” and “make music.” So if the “heart” is the “instrument,” it is the “instrument” for BOTH “singing” and “making music!”   Colossians 3:16 literally says, “singing in your heart” (Interlinear, YLT). If “in your heart” describes something that is inward and silent, then “singing in your heart,” would also have to be inward and silent! That would mean no verbal singing in church! The truth is, “in your heart” is a Biblical idiom meaning, “sincerely, heartily.”     Moffatt Translation (Ephesians 5:19), “… praise the Lord heartily with words and music.”     Thayer p. 325, “of things done from the heart i.e. cordially or sincerely, truly”   That is, when Christians “sing” and “make music” (which Thomas admits includes a piano, organ, or guitar); it is to be “in your heart” that is “heartily” or “sincerely.”

 

Thomas did not even try to answer this rebuttal! Thomas went on to say:

 

“Jason has resorted to arguments based upon his assertions about the meanings of Greek words.”

 

I quoted what Greek scholars, translators of our English Bibles, said. Thomas dismissed these comments, and offered no proof to the contrary. Thomas referenced a book by M.C. Kurfees. That’s correct, and men such as O.E. Payne and M.D. Clubb wrote books showing his doctrine false. Thomas stated:

 

 “My first affirmative contained not one appeal to Greek but rather to the English translations … Any proposition in the realm of religion that cannot be proved by our English Bible is not true—it cannot be proved.”

 

What about believers who don’t speak English? Paul and Apollos must have found it nearly impossible to debate the Jews without an English Bible! Ridiculous statements as this remind me of those who say, “If the KJV was good enough for the Apostle Paul, it’s good enough for me!” Thomas didn’t have any reservation using Greek in his debate with D.L. Welch on the baptismal formula. So, Thomas proves his own statement false. Besides, I have shown from English that “sing” DOES NOT exclude the playing of musical instruments.

 

          Thomas responded to the testimony of the ASV translators (Lightfoot, Trench, Thayer) that a “psalm” is a “song sung to musical accompaniment” by simply quoting various translations of Ephesians 5:19. One of those translations was the ASV! Thomas, quoting the ASV DOES NOT negate the translators’ definition of psalm as “a song sung to musical accompaniment.” You accept the ASV “translation,” now accept the ASV translators’ “definition!” When you quote the ASV and claim that they intended to convey singing without musical instruments, you are absolutely WRONG! The ASV translators told us what they meant by psalm, and that is “a song sung to MUSICAL ACCOMPANIMENT!”

 

          Thomas again emphasized “speaking” (Ephesians 5:19) as if this participle indicates that psalms denoted unaccompanied singing. I responded to this in my second negative, and Thomas made NO attempt to answer it!

 

 

Participles DO NOT determine the definition of nouns! There is NO grammarian that will back this up! “Speaking” no more indicates that “psalms” are “vocal only,” than “preaching” (Luke 3:3) indicates that “baptism” was “verbal only!” Also laleo (“speaking”) is not limited to the human voice. Both Thayer and Eadie indicated that laleo was used in reference to animals and musical instruments.

          Thomas responded to my illustration of a person saying, “I’m going to sing you a song,” and then play the guitar while they sang by saying that people wouldn’t think this strange because they are “basing their conclusions on common practice TODAY.” Not so Thomas! I showed you in my first negative that in Exodus 15:20-21 the women went out “with timbrels,” and Miriam said, “SING ye to the LORD.” All the way back in Exodus, the “common practice” was that “sing” did not exclude the playing of musical instruments, nor was the playing of these timbrels considered to be “adding to” the command! The same is true with “SING” in 1 Samuel 18:6-7 and Revelation 5:8-9! It was the “common practice” that “SING” included the playing of those musical instruments! This is the BIBLICAL DEFINITION of “sing.” I disagree with Thomas that MOST so-called “Christians” would accept “sprinkling” as “baptism.” I would think the majority understand that those who “sprinkle” violate the Biblical definition of “baptism,” just as much as those who command “accappella singing only” violate the Biblical definition of “sing!”

 

          Thomas responded to my statement that “accappella” is not found in the Bible by saying:

 

“‘SINGING’ is found in the NT as an act of worship, but ‘PLAYING’ is ‘found nowhere’ in the NT!”

 

This statement is absolutely false! The Coptic Bible (an ancient translation still read in Egypt today) translates Ephesians 5:19 as, “praising and PLAYING to the Lord in your hearts.” Norwegian NT states “Sing and PLAY for the Lord in your hearts.” Luther’s German Translation, “Sing and PLAY to the Lord in your hearts.” Scandinavian NT, “Sing and PLAY with your heart to God the Father.” The Revised New Testament, “Singing and PLAYING to the Lord in your hearts.” And even Thomas, himself, admitted that “make music” included the PLAYING of a piano, organ, or guitar!

 

          Thomas asked if I would admit that unaccompanied singing occurred in Acts 16:25. Of course I’ll admit this! The context demands this! However the verb Luke used for “sing” was humneo NOT psallo! Acts 16:25 was an “incidental.” If this is Thomas’ authority for “accappella singing only,” then this singing must be done at midnight by two men who are naked and beaten!

 

          Next Thomas offered a historical argument claiming “substantial evidence exists that the music of the early church was ‘a cappella’.” Thomas’ argument is more hysterical than it is historical! Notice Thomas quoted Wikipedia as “Jewish and Christian music were originally a cappella.” Jewish music was originally accappella?! The first reference, the very origin of Jewish music is Exodus 15:20-21 where the women went out WITH TIMBRELS and sang unto the LORD! Neither Jewish, nor Christian music was originally accappella! Thomas mentioned McKinnon’s book (1965). Apparently Thomas is unaware of McKinnon’s later work, Music in Early Christian Literature (1987), in which he stated (p. 3):

 

“Music historians have tended to assume that there is a direct connection, that is, that ecclesiastical authorities consciously strove to maintain their music free from the incursion of musical instruments. There is LITTLE EVIDENCE of this in the sources however.” (Bold emphasis mine JLW)

 

The Montanist (c. 157) played harps (ANF 3:4)! Clement (190) mentioned musical instruments in connection to Colossians 3:16 (ANF 1:249)! Tertullian (225) referred to musical instruments in the context of Ephesians 5:19 (ANF 4:468)! Ephraim (373) spoke of praising God with a lute or harp (PNF 13:227)! Jerome (420) wrote of “luteplayers for the Saviour” (NPNF 6:107)! Augustine (430) encouraged singing with the lyre or psaltery (Hastings, Encyclopedia Religion and Ethics, 9:31)! For more information on instrumental music in church history check out theweatherlyreport.blogspot.com.

 

          Thomas argued that the instruments in 1 Samuel 18:6-7 and Revelation 5:8-9 were “in addition” to singing. Thomas fails to understand that the term “sing” was used to describe BOTH the vocal and instrumental music! That means it was “included” not “in addition” to singing.

 

          Thomas limits James 5:13 to “individual worship” rather than the Christian life because “many versions” translate psallo as “sing praise.” The context determines whether “individual worship” is in view. The passage is dealing with the Christian’s life and whether or not he is “cheerful.” Given Thomas’ rational, Christians should only worship God if they are cheerful!
 

          Thomas again stated that James 5:14 doesn’t exclude doctors because of other passages (Matthew 9:12), but Thomas did not attempt to answer the rebuttal I made:

 

 

If Thomas believes that Matthew 9:12 is authority to see a doctor, then by the same token one could say Luke 15:25 is authority for instrumental music and dancing in the Father’s house.

Concerning Thomas’ “gopher wood” argument, Thomas stated:
 

“Jason contended that ‘gopher wood’ was not a specific kind of wood. If so, then why did God command Noah … Was that instruction meaningless to Noah?”
 

That’s not even what I said! I showed from the Septuagint that “gopher wood” wasn’t a “species” of wood but referred to “four-cornered wood.” The wood could be “ANY species” (oak, pine, etc.) so long as it was “four-cornered.”
 

          Concerning singing psalms with musical instruments Thomas stated:
 

“However, we are commanded to sing ‘psalms’ (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16). Consequently, according to Jason, it is a sin not to use mechanical instruments in worship, for we cannot sing ‘psalms’ without them!”
 

Thomas’ statement is misleading. The participles denote a “result” (Wallace, Greek Grammar, pp. 644-645). This is “authority” to use musical instruments, not a “command” to use them. However, anyone who teaches against musical instruments is in sin because they would be “taking away” from the word of God, and excluding believers from doing what is authorized!
 

          Finally, Thomas again referred to the classical and NT meaning of psallo. I gave a lengthy response in my second negative showing the error of how Thomas handles the lexicons. I showed how Thomas must interpolate things into Thayer’s lexicon for it to say what Thomas thinks it means. I showed that none of the lexicons define psallo as “sing rather than play upon mechanical instruments” as Thomas stated. I even quoted Abbott-Smith who indicated that both he and Thayer simply grouped the NT passages together, and did not mean to indicate that the idea of instruments was excluded. What did Thomas say about this? NOTHING! Psallo is NEVER used in the Bible to mean “pluck a hair” or “twang a bow.” Psallo is always used in reference to music. That is its Biblical usage!
 

          Thomas mentioned words change meaning through history. Even Thayer indicated that psallo still meant “to play on a stringed instrument … Plutarch [A.D. 85]” during the time of the writing of the NT! I could give many other references to show that psallo still meant play a musical instrument during NT times. Thayer’s reference to “in the NT” was only to show that psallo in the NT refers to a song of “praise” as opposed to a secular song, not that it didn’t include musical accompaniment.
 

          I have shown that “sing” does not exclude instruments. I have shown that the translators define “psalms” and “sing praise” as referring to singing with musical accompaniment. I have shown that the NT authorizes two actions: “sing and make music.” Thomas admits “make music” included a piano, organ, or guitar. And thus, Thomas’ proposition has been refuted.

Instrumental Music Debate Thrasher-Weatherly TNT 3rd Affirmative

Thomas Thrasher Third Affirmative

 

I have previously demonstrated that the New Testament of Jesus Christ teaches that Christians are to sing praises to God:  Acts 16:25, “Paul and Silas were praying and singing hymns to God.”  Romans 15:9, “I will confess to You among the Gentiles, and sing to Your name.”  1 Corinthians 14:15, “I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding.”  Ephesians 5:19, “Speaking to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.”  Colossians 3:16, “Teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.”  Hebrews 2:12, “In the midst of the assembly [church] I will sing praise to You.”  James 5:13, “Is anyone among you suffering? Let him pray. Is anyone cheerful? Let him sing psalms.”  In each case we find the first century Christians sang, but we never read that they played on mechanical instruments in worship. Nowhere does the NT approve the use of “mechanical instruments of music in New Testament worship.”

The Lord observed concerning the worship of some: “And in vain they worship Me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men” (Matthew 15:9). The Bible, in both Old and New Testaments, has condemned the practice of adding to God’s law. Deuteronomy 4:2, “You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you.” Numbers 22:18, “Then Balaam answered …, ‘Though Balak were to give me his house full of silver and gold, I could not go beyond the word of the Lord my God, to do less or more.’”  Proverbs 30:5-6, “Every word of God is pure; ... Do not add to His words, lest He rebuke you, and you be found a liar.” Revelation 22:18-19, “For I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part from the Book of Life, from the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.” Consequently, we must not add pianos, organs, guitars, trumpets, and other mechanical instruments of music to the singing authorized in New Testament worship!  To transgress the doctrine of Christ is sin! 2 John 9, “Whoever transgresses and does not abide in the doctrine of Christ does not have God.” 1 John 3:4, “Sin is the transgression of the law.”

Therefore, our worship today is limited to what has been revealed by God in the New Testament (Matthew 26:28; 2 Corinthians 3:6; Hebrews 9:15). We must not accept the preaching of a so-called apostle or angel in place of it (Galatians 1:6-9). We must not exalt any man above it (1 Corinthians 4:6). We must not transgress it (2 John 9). We must not add to or take away from it (Revelation 22:18-19).

In attempting to overcome the force of these simple Bible facts, Jason has resorted to arguments based upon his assertions about the meanings of Greek words. He alleges that the Greek words authorize instrumental music in NT worship. I have witnessed such efforts on many occasions, and entire books have been published to refute such claims (e.g., M. C. Kurfees’ Instrumental Music in the Worship). I wonder how many in our audience can read, speak, or write Greek? My first affirmative contained not one appeal to Greek but rather to the English translations that all of us can understand. Although I have studied Greek extensively for 40 years, including university courses, and I have taught Greek courses on numerous occasions, I agree with the person who stated: “Any proposition in the realm of religion that cannot be proved by our English Bible is not true—it cannot be proved.”

Jason says that he gave the testimony that psalms are “songs sung to musical accompaniment.” Let us see how various translations render the Greek words using, as an example, Ephesians 5:19 (bold emphasis is mine):

KJV: “Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.”

ASV: “speaking one to another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody with your heart to the Lord.”

NASB: “speaking to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody with your heart to the Lord.”

NKJV: “speaking to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.”

Weymouth NT: “Speak to one another with psalms and hymns and spiritual songs. Sing and offer praise in your hearts to the Lord.”

Young’s Literal Translation: “speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.”

NIV: “speaking to one another with psalms, hymns, and songs from the Spirit. Sing and make music from your heart to the Lord.”

Every one of these translations in our English language tells us to speak to one another by singing and making melody in our hearts—no mention of a piano, organ, guitar, etc.

My friend admits, “No one is saying that ‘singing’ IS playing.” Okay. Since he agrees that “singing” is not “playing,” then no passage that mentions “singing” authorizes “playing,” because playing is a different action from singing—an unauthorized one for NT worship!

Jason argues that if someone says, “I’m going to ‘sing’ you a song,” and then they play the guitar while they sang, no one would think that strange. That’s because those people are basing their conclusions on common practice TODAY. Most so-called “Christians” would not think it strange if they went to a “baptism” and water was sprinkled or poured on the individual being “baptized.” That’s common practice as the word “baptize” is used TODAY. But that’s not the way it was used in the New Testament (Romans 6:4; Colossians 2:12; John 3:23; Acts 8:38).

            Jason says that “‘a cappella’ and ‘unaccompanied’ are found nowhere in the Bible.” Actually, Jason is the one who introduced those terms in the discussion (first negative). That’s why I used those terms in responding. However, the important thing is that “SINGING” is found in the NT as an act of worship, but “PLAYING” is “found nowhere” in the NT! Would my friend admit that “a cappella” or “unaccompanied” singing occurred in Acts 16:25?—“And at midnight Paul and Silas prayed, and sang praises unto God.”

            Substantial evidence exists that the music of the early church was “a cappella.” For example, “A cappella music originally was … used in religious music … Jewish and Christian music were originally a cappella” (“A Cappella,” Wikipedia). “There is no reference to instrumental music in the worship of the New Testament or the worship of churches for the first six centuries” (McKinnon [1965], The Church Fathers and Musical Instruments [PhD Dissertation, Columbia University]). “In the early church the whole congregation joined in the singing, but instrumental music did not accompany the praise” (W. D. Killen, The Ancient Church, p. 423). If space permitted, I could greatly multiply such statements; however, the important point is that the NT says we are to “sing” but nowhere says to play upon mechanical instruments in worship.

            Jason argues that “‘Sing’ included the playing of musical instruments” in 1 Samuel 18:6-7 and Revelation 5:8-9, but he is wrong. Jason, can a person “sing” without using a mechanical instrument of music? Obviously, yes. Therefore, a mechanical instrument does not inhere in the word “sing.” To know that there are mechanical instruments one must have additional information, as I showed: 1 Samuel 18:6-7 mentions “and with instruments of musick” and “played”; Revelation 5:8-9 mentions “harps.” There were instruments in addition to singing. Now, why didn’t Jason find mention of such instruments in the passages authorizing singing in NT worship? No such instruments are mentioned in any of those passages!

 

Where Is N.T. Authority? Singing                            Mechanical Instruments Acts 16:25                                          Where Romans 15:9                                                Is 1 Corinthians 14:15                              The Ephesians 5:19                                    Scripture Colossians 3:16                                         ??? Hebrews 2:12 James 5:13                      In New Testament Worship

 

My friend asserted, “James 5:13 is dealing with the Christian life. … This would mean that … he also could not play the trumpet in the school band!”  Wrong again! This verse says, “Sing praise” (many versions)—this is individual worship to God, not secular activity.

Furthermore, Jason contends, “If … James 5:14 … does not exclude doctors, then how can anyone claim that ‘let him sing psalms’ (James 5:13b) excludes musical instruments?” As I showed, and as Jason admitted, other verses authorize doctors (Colossians 4:14; Matthew 9:12). What other verse(s) authorize mechanical instruments of music in NT worship? He thinks he finds it in “sing,” but playing is a separate and additional action from singing. One can play without singing or sing without playing. One action does not authorize the other in NT worship!

On the “gopher wood” issue, Jason contended that “gopher wood” was not a specific kind of wood. If so, then why did God command Noah, “Make thee an ark of gopher wood”? Was that instruction meaningless to Noah? The Bible makes it clear that Noah understood God’s instruction and obeyed Him (Genesis 6:22). I argue that we should do likewise when it comes to our worship unto God—the NT says “sing,” so that’s what we must do to please God. We have no authority to add another kind of music (playing mechanical instruments): “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God” (2 John 9).

Jason said that one can no more sing a “psalm” without instrumental music “than a Presbyterian who sprinkles ‘baptized’ a convert!” However, we are commanded to sing “psalms” (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16). Consequently, according to Jason, it is a sin not to use mechanical instruments in worship, for we cannot sing “psalms” without them!

My opponent asserted, “I gave the testimony of three NT translators! Each of these men gave us the meaning of ‘psalms’ as used in the NT, and stated that a ‘psalm’ was a ‘song sung to musical accompaniment.’” The Analytical Greek Lexicon states: “psalmos ... impulse, touch, of the chords of a stringed instrument; in N.T. a sacred song, psalm, 1 Co. 14.26; Ep. 5.19, et al.” (p. 441). This word is a subcategory under psallo, which is defined “in N.T. to sing praises, Ro. 15:9; 1 Co. 14.15; Ep. 5.19; Ja. 5.13.” Other lexicographers likewise distinguish the classical definitions for psallo from the NT meaning:

Thayer: “a. to pluck off, pull out; b. to cause to vibrate by touching, to twang; to touch or strike the chord, to twang the strings of a musical instrument so that they gently vibrate … in the N.T. to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song …” (p. 675).

Green: “in New Testament, to sing praises.”

Bagster: “in New Testament, to sing praises.”

Robinson: “in New Testament, to sing, and construed with a dative of person, to sing in honor or in praise of any one, to sing praises to, to celebrate in song.”

Abbott-Smith: “in New Testament, to sing a hymn, sing praise.”

Jason seems not to appreciate that words often change meanings throughout the history of a language. At one time the word psallo (translated “sing,” “sing praise,” or “make melody” [with the heart as the designated instrument]) meant “to pluck the hair” or “to twang the bowstring” or “twitch the carpenter’s line.” Does Jason think we ought to do those things in our worship to God today because the NT says  psallo?  I’m sure he doesn’t, because he realizes that’s not what psallo meant in the NT. As I have indicated earlier, in the NT psallo meant to sing.



Instrumental Music Debate Thrasher-Weatherly JLW 2nd Negative

Weatherly’s Second Negative

 

After restating his position Thomas stated:
 

“Every open-minded person knows that ‘singing’ is not ‘playing’ on a mechanical instrument.”

 

 

Thomas’ statement does not even begin to answer, or represent the rebuttal that I made. No one is saying that “singing” IS playing. The rebuttal was that the term “sing” does not EXCLUDE “playing,” as I showed by the definition of “sing.” No “open-minded” person would think it strange for a person to say, “I’m going to ‘sing’ you a song,” and then play the guitar while they sang.
 

          I pointed out that what excludes musical instruments from “sing” is the term “a cappella.” Thomas responded to this by saying:
 

“The term a cappella comes from the Latin … and means ‘in the manner of the church.’ The classical form of church music was unaccompanied singing.”

 

 

Notice that in order for Thomas to explain “a cappella,” he didn’t just say that the music was “singing.” Rather, Thomas stated it was “unaccompanied singing!” Even Thomas understands that “singing” does not exclude musical instruments, and thus he had to qualify it as “unaccompanied.” If “singing” already excludes musical instruments, then WHY did Thomas have to qualify it as “unaccompanied?” Thomas did not give the full story on the word “a cappella.” According to the Encyclopedia Britannica:
 

“The a cappella style arose about the time of the composer Josquin dez Prez, in the late 15^th century … in the music he wrote for the Sistine Chapel of the Vatican. Because no independent instrumental musical parts were written, later scholars assumed that the choir sang unaccompanied, but the evidence is now that an organ or other instruments exactly ‘doubled’ some or several of the vocal parts.” (www.britannica.com)

 

 

The origin of “a cappella” indicates that the music “in the manner of the church” was ACCOMPANIED music, not unaccompanied! It was only through misunderstanding that “a cappella” came to mean “unaccompanied singing.” Again, “a cappella” and “unaccompanied” are found nowhere in the Bible. Thomas must insert this into the text!

 

 

          Thomas totally overlooked the point I made from 1 Samuel 18:6-7 and Revelation 5:8-9, etc. I understand that “instruments of musick” are mentioned, but this action is described by the word “SING” (1 Samuel 21:11). Achish did not say, “Did they not ‘sing and play’…?” He simply said, “SING!” According to Thomas “sing” should have excluded the playing of musical instruments, but that was not the case. “Sing” INCLUDED the playing of those musical instruments! The same is true in Revelation where they were holding harps, and the Bible says they “SING;” not “sing and play.” “Sing” included the playing of musical instruments. Understand my argument here is on the word usage of “sing,” not that harps “will be in heaven” as Thomas has argued against. Although, there are commentators (Meyer) that understand “Mt. Zion” (Revelation 14:1) as being the church (Hebrews 12:22) not heaven; but again, that’s not even my argument.

 

 

          Thomas responded to my comments on James 5:13 by saying that NT worship may be individual worship, but this does not answer the argument. James 5:13 is dealing with the Christian life. If James 5:13 excludes musical instruments, then it would exclude them from the Christian’s life, not just “individual worship.” This would mean that not only couldn’t a Christian sing “Amazing Grace” with a piano in the privacy of his home, he also could not play the trumpet in the school band! Thomas DID NOT tell us what else James 5:13 excluded! If a Christian is happy, does James 5:13 exclude them from whistling or leaping (Luke 6:23)?

 

 

          Thomas then referred to my argument of whether James 5:14 excluded Christians from seeing doctors as “weak.” If my argument was “weak,” his rebuttal was even weaker! I agree that James 5:14 does not exclude Christians from seeing doctors, but not because of Matthew 9:12, etc. “Physician” in these passages is being used metaphorically in response to why Jesus ate with sinners. If Thomas believes that Matthew 9:12 is authority to see a doctor, then by the same token one could say Luke 15:25 is authority for instrumental music and dancing in the Father’s house. If “let him pray” (James 5:13a) does not exclude counseling, and “let them pray over him” (James 5:14) does not exclude doctors, then how can anyone claim that “let him sing psalms” (James 5:13b) excludes musical instruments? That is as inconsistent as can be!

 

 

          Thomas again referred to his “gopher wood” argument, and stated that it doesn’t matter what species of wood “gopher wood” is. Thomas missed the point. Terms like “pine,” “cedar,” “oak” ARE NOT specific terms! The Septuagint implies that “gopher wood” was not even a species, but referred to “four-cornered wood.” We call this “squared-four-sides” (S4S), and can be ANY species of wood! It’s an incredibly weak illustration to try to prove that “sing” is specific and excludes musical instruments. I have illustrated from Exodus 15:20-21, 1 Samuel 21:11, and Revelation 15:3, “sing” is generic and INCLUDED the playing of musical instruments!

 

 

          Thomas then responded to my argument that the NT authorizes “psalms” i.e. “a song sung to musical accompaniment” by saying they sang a psalm without musical accompaniment at a debate. Thomas might think he sang a “psalm” at that debate, but if there was no “musical accompaniment” he no more sang a “psalm” than a Presbyterian who sprinkles “baptized” a convert! What you think you did is in violation of the definition of the word! Thomas went on to say:

 

 

“Furthermore, according to the NT a mechanical instrument certainly is not required by the word psalm. Ephesians 5:19 states: “Speaking to yourselves in psalms…”

 

 

Thomas implies that the participle “speaking” indicates that the noun “psalms” was something that was “vocal only.” Participles DO NOT determine the definition of nouns! There is NO grammarian that will back this up! “Speaking” no more indicates that “psalms” are “vocal only,” than “preaching” (Luke 3:3) indicates that “baptism” was “verbal only!” Also laleo (“speaking”) is not limited to the human voice. Both Thayer and Eadie indicated that laleo was used in reference to animals and musical instruments.

 

 

          I presented the testimony of three ASV translators (Thayer, Lightfoot, Trench) that “psalms” are “songs sung to musical accompaniment.” Thomas responded to this by saying:

 

 

“However, he makes a serious error by assuming that a word retains exactly the same meaning throughout its entire history … That’s why we must distinguish Classical Greek lexicons from NT Greek lexicons, which Jason has failed to do.”

 

 

I DID NOT refer to a “Classical Greek lexicon!” I gave the testimony of three NT translators! Each of these men gave us the meaning of “psalms” as used in the NT, and stated that a “psalm” was a “song sung to musical accompaniment.”

 

 

          The real error here is Thomas’ handling of the lexicons. Instead of concentration on Thayer’s definition of “psalmos”, Thomas jumped over to “psallo” thinking that Thayer indicated a contrast or change in the meaning of the word. What Thomas wants Thayer’s lexicon to say is this:

 

 

“[use to mean] to twang the strings of a musical instrument … [but] in the N.T. [means] to sing a hymn [unaccompanied]…”

 

 

There are a lot things Thomas must interpolate into Thayer’s definition for it to state what he thinks it means. “In the N.T.” DOES NOT indicate a change in meaning in the word “psallo.” When Thayer indicated a change in meaning in a word, he did so by separating the meaning in numerical order i.e. 1, 2, 3 (see “telos” for an example of this). There is no numerical separation in the definition of “psallo!” All of it goes together. So, when Thayer said, “in the N.T. to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song” that goes right along with all the things he said previously about playing a musical instrument.

 

 

          Thomas went on to say:

 

 

“Other lexicons that define psallo in the NT as sing rather than play upon mechanical instruments:” (bold emphasis mine JLW)

 

 

But NONE of the lexicons cited stated “rather than play upon mechanical instruments!” That is something Thomas must insert into the definition! “Sing praise” DOES NOT exclude musical instruments. Dr. Young translated “psallo” as “sing praise” (Romans 15:9 YLT), but he defined “psallo” as “to sing praise with a musical instrument.” F.W. Gingrich (Shorter Lexicon) simply defined “psallo” as “sing, sing praise,” but he by no means meant “unaccompanied singing” because he argued AGAINST the Gospel Advocate:

 

 

“It seems to me that you CANNOT EXCLUDE the possibility of accompaniment in the New Testament passages, since psallo still means ‘play on a harp’ in Lucian, who wrote in the second century A.D.” (Bales, Instrumental Music, pp. 115-116)

 

 

Abbott-Smith was once questioned concerning his and Thayer’s definition of “psallo,” and he replied:

 

 

“I am sure that Thayer, like myself, does no more than group the New Testament passages together. If he meant to say that the idea of instrumental music was excluded, he surely ought to have plainly said so.” (Clubb, Boles, Is Instrumental Music Scriptural, 1927, p. 36)

 

 

The problem is Thomas reads these lexicons with jaundiced eyes, and does not take the total definition given by the lexicographers. Also, I’m not sure which “Robinson” lexicon Thomas quoted, but Edward Robinson’s lexicon defines “psallo” as:

 

 

“In Septuagint and N.T. to sing, to chant, properly as accompanying stringed instruments.”

 

 

And that’s the “New Testament” meaning of “psallo,” not the “Classical!” In answering my argument concerning “psalms” why didn’t Thomas give us his lexicographers’ definitions of “psalmos?” Abbott-Smith defined “psalmos” as:

 

 

“A sacred song sung to musical accompaniment, a psalm (LXX): 1 Cor 14:26, Eph 5:19, Col 3:16”

 

 

So the lexicon Thomas appealed to affirms that “psalms” are songs “sung to musical accompaniment” and even cited 1 Corinthians 14:26, which shows that musical instruments were used in N.T. worship!

 

 

          It’s interesting that Thomas skipped right over my rebuttal of his Lord’s Supper argument. I took Thomas’ advice and applied the same principle he used for the bread and wine and showed based upon established O.T. meaning that “psalms” are “songs sung to musical accompaniment.” Thomas may not roast a lamb, but sure observed the Passover on that rebuttal!

 

 

          Finally, Thomas made the statement:

 

 

“I was disappointed that Jason, referring to Ephesians 5:19, asserted that ‘make music authorizes musical instruments’.”

 

 

Thomas, YOU are the one who said,

 

 

“If God had only said, ‘Make music [generic] in NT worship,’ then a piano, organ, or guitar would have been included in the generic command.”

 

 

Ephesians 5:19 DOES say, “make music,” and YOU asserted this would include a piano, organ, or guitar! So, Thomas if you’re disappointed; be disappointed in yourself for affirming that “make music” (which is what Ephesians 5:19 says) includes a piano, organ or guitar! Thomas tried to cover this by saying:

 

 

“We are doing it ‘in our hearts,’ not on a mechanical instrument of music!”

 

 

David praised God “in his heart” (Psalm 9:1; 57:7; 111:1; 138:1), time and time again WITH musical instruments (Psalm 33:2; 57:8; 71:22)! So, “in your heart” does not indicate “not on musical instruments.” “In your heart” (Ephesians 5:19) modifies BOTH “sing” and “make music.” So if the “heart” is the “instrument,” it is the “instrument” for BOTH “singing” and “making music!” Colossians 3:16 literally says, “singing in your heart” (Interlinear, YLT). If “in your heart” describes something that is inward and silent, then “singing in your heart,” would also have to be inward and silent! That would mean no verbal singing in church! The truth is, “in your heart” is a Biblical idiom meaning, “sincerely, heartily.”

 

 

Moffatt Translation (Ephesians 5:19), “… praise the Lord heartily with words and music.”

 

 

Thayer p. 325, “of things done from the heart i.e. cordially or sincerely, truly”

 

 

That is, when Christians “sing” and “make music” (which Thomas admits includes a piano, organ, or guitar); it is to be “in your heart” that is “heartily” or “sincerely.”

 

 

Please give attention to Thomas’ response. Thank you.