Instrumental Music Debate Thrasher-Weatherly TNT 2nd Affirmative

Thomas Thrasher Second Affirmative

 

In my first affirmative I demonstrated that the New Testament teaches God’s people are to sing praises to Him, and nowhere authorizes us to play “mechanical instruments of music in New Testament worship.” 

Where Is N.T. Authority?   Singing                            Mechanical Instruments   Acts 16:25                                          Where Romans 15:9                                                Is 1 Corinthians 14:15                              The Ephesians 5:19                                    Scripture Colossians 3:16                                         ??? Hebrews 2:12 James 5:13                        In New Testament Worship

 

As a reminder of the teaching of these Bible passages, I will quote them again. Acts 16:25, “Paul and Silas were praying and singing hymns to God.”  Romans 15:9, “I will confess to You among the Gentiles, and sing to Your name.”  1 Corinthians 14:15, “I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding.”  Ephesians 5:19, “Speaking to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.”  Colossians 3:16, “Teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.”  Hebrews 2:12, “In the midst of the assembly [church] I will sing praise to You.”  James 5:13, “Is anyone among you suffering? Let him pray. Is anyone cheerful? Let him sing psalms.” In each case we find that first century Christians sang, but we never read that they played on mechanical instruments in worship.

Jason responds that “the word ‘sing’ does not exclude the playing of musical instruments.” However, that sidesteps the issue. Every open-minded person knows that “singing” is not “playing” on a mechanical instrument. Singing and playing are two different actions. The definition that I cited for “music” distinguished vocal from instrumental sounds. Singing is not playing, and playing is not singing!  However, the NT authorizes “singing”; it does not authorize “playing”!

Jason says, “What excludes musical instruments … is the term ‘a cappella,’ which means ‘without instrumental accompaniment’ (Webster).” The term a cappella comes from Latin (by way of Italian) and means “in the manner of the church.” The classical form of church music was unaccompanied singing. The addition of mechanical instruments to congregational worship was a later innovation unauthorized by the Scriptures.

My friend cites instances in which he thinks singing included playing upon mechanical instruments. However, he is honestly mistaken. 1 Samuel 18:6-7, “…the women came out of all cities of Israel, singing and dancing, to meet king Saul, with tabrets, with joy, and with instruments of musick.  And the women answered one another as they played…” How did Jason know that these women played upon mechanical instruments?  Simple.  He knew this because the passage mentioned “instruments of musick” and said they “played”!  He did not know they played from the fact that they were singing!  Singing and playing upon instruments of music are not the same action.

Similarly, Jason cites Revelation 5:8-9; 14:2-3; and 15:2-3. He states: “Three times … we are told of those holding harps.” See the point again?  Jason did not know that instruments were involved until the harps were mentioned. The “singing” did not includes harps. The harps were in addition to the singing!

By the way, some erroneously conclude that harps may be used in NT worship because, it is claimed, harps will be in heaven. Allow me to point out that the things in heaven are not identical to the things in the church. For example, Jesus taught that there will be no marriage in heaven (Matthew 22:30; Mark 12:25). Does that mean that there should be no marriage TODAY? If instrumental music in heaven (assuming it will be there) proves that instrumental music should be used in worship today, then why wouldn’t the fact that there will be no marriage in heaven prove that we should have no marriage today?    

My opponent refers to James 5:13 and he comments, “The context of James 5:13 is not dealing with the church assembly, but with the individual Christian life.” Actually, I do not disagree with my friend. However, this is no argument against my affirmation, because the proposition does not specify a “church assembly”! The proposition states: “The Bible teaches that the use of mechanical instruments of music in New Testament worship is without Divine authority.” NT worship might be in a church assembly, but it might also be individual worship outside of a church assembly (e.g., Acts 16:25). The NT authorizes singing in worship (whether congregational or individual), but it does not authorize playing upon mechanical instruments of music in worship (either congregational or individual)!

Jason introduces another weak argument relating to James 5:13-14: “If ‘sing psalms’ in verse 13 excludes playing instruments, does ‘let them pray over him’ indicate that if a Christian goes to a doctor they ‘transgress the doctrine of Christ’ (2 John 9)”? Answer: The latter expression does not exclude going to a doctor for the simple reason that the Lord approved a sick person’s doing that (Matthew 9:12; Mark 2:17; Luke 5:31)! So we ought to take all that God’s word teaches about that subject.  I have cited several verses that authorize singing in NT worship (e.g., Acts 16:25; Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16); however, what other verse shows that we ought to play upon mechanical instruments of music “in New Testament worship”?  I have several verses showing a sick person is authorized to go to a doctor, but Jason has no verse showing that he is authorized to play mechanical instruments in NT worship! Consequently, my opponent does “transgress … the doctrine of Christ” (2 John 9) by adding such instruments to NT worship. This is a serious matter, since one who does that “hath not God”! 

In my first affirmative I introduced the following chart to illustrate the difference between generic and specific commands. With reference to 2 Kings 5:10-14, Jason stated: “I will agree that Naaman was specifically told to dip ‘in Jordan’”; however, my friend neglects to apply that principle to the issue I was illustrating. Since the Jordan River was specified in the instructions, would Naaman have been authorized to generalize that to some other body of water?  The correct answer is “No!”  In fact, Naaman at first suggested some other rivers (Abana and Pharpar); however, it was not until he did precisely what God said (“wash in Jordan seven times”) that Naaman’s leprosy was cleansed.  Similarly, when God specifies “singing” (e.g., Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16), then that’s what we must do to please Him. We have no authority to generalize to whatever kind of music we want (e.g., piano, organ, guitar). 

Generic or Specific?    Command                        Generic          Specific   Build Ark                               Wood                      Gopher  Genesis 6:14                                          Wash                                    Water              Jordan 2 Kings 5:10-14                                     Go Wash                                   Water                  Siloam       John 9:7 Sing                                              Music                     Sing Colossians 3:16         Ephesians 5:19

 

My opponent disagrees, however, with my statement that “gopher wood” was specific when God told Noah to “make thee an ark of gopher wood” (Genesis 6:14). Jason wrote, “Commentators have struggled for over a century concerning what species of wood ‘gopher wood’ was.”  He has again missed the point.  It doesn’t really matter if we know what species “gopher wood” was; it only matters that Noah knew so that he could obey God’s command! Whatever “species” was specified by the term “gopher wood,” that’s what Noah was to use, not some other kind of wood!  Noah did all that God commanded (Genesis 6:22), so he used gopher wood.  Similarly, when we follow God’s instructions regarding NT worship, we will “sing”! That’s what God has specified.  If another kind of music (mechanical instrumental music) is authorized, where is the verse from God’s book? 

Jason argued that the use of the word “psalm” requires a mechanical instrument of music. However, that is not true!  For example, during a public debate I had 35 years ago, we sang the psalm “Hallelujah Praise Jehovah,” the words of which are taken from Psalm 148. We sang a psalm, but we did not play upon a mechanical instrument of music.  Consequently, it is possible to sing a psalm without a mechanical instrument—we did it! 

Furthermore, according to the NT a mechanical instrument certainly is not required by the word psalm. Ephesians 5:19 states: “Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.”  Note that when we sing psalms we are speaking to ourselves. We are also “making melody,” but we are doing it “in our heart,” not on a mechanical instrument of music! Colossians 3:16 states: “Teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.”  When we sing psalms we are teaching and admonishing one another. We are doing it “in our hearts,” not on a mechanical instrument of music!  This also answers Jason’s assertion that “psalm” in 1 Corinthians 14:26 necessitates a mechanical instrument. His assertion is false!

My friend refers to several lexicographers and commentators on the meanings of Greek words (e.g., psalmos). However, he makes a serious error by assuming that a word retains exactly the same meaning throughout its entire history. Every thinking person knows that words often change meanings over a period of time. For example, consider the word “gay” (James 2:3). The word translated gay in the KJV means shining, splendid, fine.  However, the word “gay” now refers to a homosexual, not at all the meaning in James 2:3!

Similarly, Greek lexicons will often give several meanings over the history of the word. For example, the meaning of a word in Classical Greek is often not the same as the meaning in Koine Greek. That’s why we must distinguish Classical Greek lexicons from NT Greek lexicons, which Jason has failed to do.  Using Thayer on psallo as an example: “a. to pluck off, pull out; b. to cause to vibrate by touching, to twang; to touch or strike the chord, to twang the strings of a musical instrument so that they gently vibrate … in the N.T. to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song …” (p. 675).

Other lexicons that define psallo in the NT as sing rather than play upon mechanical instruments:

Green: “Psallo … in New Testament, to sing praises.”

Bagster: “Psallo … in New Testament, to sing praises.”

Robinson: “Psallo … in New Testament, to sing, and construed with a dative of person, to sing in honor or in praise of any one, to sing praises to, to celebrate in song.”

Abbott-Smith: “Psallo … in New Testament, to sing a hymn, sing praise.”

Analytical Greek Lexicon: “Psallo … in the New Testament, to sing praises.”

I was disappointed that Jason, referring to Ephesians 5:19, asserted that “‘make music’ authorizes musical instruments.”  The truth is that Ephesians 5:19 specifies that “making melody” is done “in your heart”!  Nothing is said about making music on a mechanical instrument. 

I argued that the NT specifies the elements in the Lord’s supper, and we have no authority for any other elements than those specified.

Where Is N.T. Authority?   Bread & Fruit of the Vine          Roast Lamb   Matthew 26:26-29                              Where Mark 14:22-25                                       Is Luke 22:17-20                                      The 1 Corinthians 10:16                             Scripture 1 Corinthians 11:23-28                             ???                          In The Lord’s Supper

 

Jason agreed with this principle. He recognizes that “unleavened bread (Matt. 26:17, 26) and fruit of the vine (Matt. 26:27-29)” are the elements authorized for the Lord’s supper. Adding another element (such as roast lamb) is unauthorized. However, he is inconsistent because he adds instrumental music to NT worship when only singing is authorized. Why would anyone want to add playing mechanical instruments to NT worship rather than simply doing what the Bible authorizes (i.e. sing)?

I strongly recommend that we have the same attitude as the noble Bereans who “searched the Scriptures daily, whether those things were so” (Acts 17:11). I invite your attention to my friend’s next denial.